What does that mean? Does it mean that the righteous don’t have a Law nor a need for one? I believe by saying this, Paul was explaining the need for the Law, which is three fold:
1. To make sin and evil known (Rom 3:20);
2. To prevent sin and evil (Rom 13:3);
“But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully; Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, for whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine…” (1 Tim 1:8-10).
If there was no Law, we would not be able to distinguish between right and wrong, nor would we feel bad for doing evil. However, it is evident that, even without a written Law, we all get convicted in our hearts when we do wrong, and so there exists an unwritten LAW that keeps us all in order (Rom 2:14-15)…
Read more at https://ufuomaee.blog/the-law-is-for-the-lawless